September 6, 2025
UPSC Prelims Polity Topic-wise PYQs on Supreme Court, High Court, District Court and Tribunals 2025-1995

UPSC Prelims Polity Topic-wise PYQs on Supreme Court, High Court, District Court and Tribunals 2025-1995

The judiciary forms a crucial part of the UPSC Polity syllabus, with consistent questions asked on the Supreme Court, High Courts, District Courts, and various Tribunals. These questions test aspirants’ knowledge of judicial structure, powers, constitutional provisions, and landmark cases. Analysing past year questions helps identify recurring themes like judicial independence, appointment of judges, jurisdiction, and tribunal reforms. Practicing them enables candidates to strengthen their concepts and prepare strategically for Prelims.

UPSC Prelims Polity Topic-wise PYQs on Supreme Court, High Court, District Court and Tribunals 2025-1995

Q1. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to: [2024]

a) A government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.

b) The Parliament or legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.

c) The lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.

d) The Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.

Ans c

Q2. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: [2022]

  1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
  2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
  3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given is correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans c

Q3. Consider the folIowing statements: [2022]

  1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
  2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
  3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
  4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 4

c) 3 and 4 only

d) 3 only

Ans b

Q4. With reference to India, consider the following statements: [2022]

  1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
  2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans b

Q5. With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements: [2021]

1) Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.

2) A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans a

Q6. Consider the following statements: [2019]

  1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.
  2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details or what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
  3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
  4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 3 only

c) 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans c

Q7. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: [2019]

  1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
  2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans d

Q7. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? [2019]

a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.

b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by the laws made by Parliament.

c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare a Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.

d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union Legislature.

Ans b

Q8. In India, Judicial Review implies: (2017)

(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.

(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases

Ans a

Q9. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?  [2016]

  1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.
  2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/conciliators.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans b

Q10. Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India? [2015]

a) The President of India

b) The Prime Minister of India

c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat

d) The Supreme Court of India

Ans d

Q11. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in: [2014]

a) The President of India

b) The Parliament

c) The Chief Justice of India

d) The Law Commission

Ans b

Q12. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its: [2014]

a) Advisory jurisdiction

b) Appellate jurisdiction

c) Original jurisdiction

d) Writ jurisdiction

Ans c

Q13. With reference to National Legal Services Authority consider the following statements: (2013)

  1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker section of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
  1. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only              (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans c

Q14. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? [2012]

  1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
  2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
  3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union territory
  4. A dispute between two or more States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 and 2                                b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 4                                d) 3 and 4

Ans c

Q15. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India? [2012]

  1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India .
  2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
  3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
  4. All appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 Only              b) 3 and 4 Only

c) 4 Only                        d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans a

Q16. With reference to the Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct? [2010]

a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre litigation stage and not those matters pending before any court.

b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature.

c) Every Lok Adalats consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person.

d) None of the statements given above is correct.

Ans d

Q17. Consider the following statements: [2010]

The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact.

  1. On its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
  2. If he seeks such advice.
  3. Only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only             

b) 2 only

c) 3                       

d) 1 and 2

Ans b

Q18. With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements: [2009]

  1. An award made by a Lok adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies against thereto before any court.
  2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok adalat.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

a) 1 only                            b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2                 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans a

Q19. Consider the following statements: [2009]

  1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.
  2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level.

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

a) 1 only                            b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2                 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans d

Q20. How many high Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one State (Union Territories not included)? [2008]

a) 2                      

b) 3

c) 4                       

d) 5

Ans b

Q21. Consider the following statements: [2008]

  1. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India.
  2. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer is considered as one of the progenitors of public interest litigation (PIL) in the Indian  judicial system.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only                            

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2                

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans b

Q22. Consider the following statements: [2007]

  1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
  2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only                           b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2                 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans a

Q23. Consider the following statements: [2006]

  1. A person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court.
  2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless he has for at least five years held a judicial office in the territory of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only                            

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2                

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans d

Q24. Assertion (A): In India, every state has a High Court in its territory.

Reason (R): The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state.  [2006]

a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is false

d) A is false but R is true

Ans d

Q25. Who was the Chief Justice of India when public interest litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian Judicial System? [2006]

a) M. Hidaatullah             b) A.M. Ahmadi

c) A.S. Anand                  d) P.N. Bhagwati

Ans d

Q26. Consider the following statements: [2005]

  1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.
  2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the concerned Chief Justice and the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only                            

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2                

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans d

Q27. Consider the following statement: [2005]

  1. There are 25 High Courts in India.
  2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
  3. The National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 2 and 3                           b) 1 and 2

c) 1, 2 and 3                       d) 3 only

Ans a

Q28. Consider the following: [2005]

  1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies.
  2. Motor accident cases
  3. Pension cases

For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?

a) 1 only              b) 1 and 2

c) 2 only              d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans d

Q29. Consider the following statements: [2004]

  1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Sessions Judge.
  2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Court.
  3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years’ standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State.
  4. When the Sessions Judge awards a death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before it is carried out.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2                           b) 2, 3 and 4

c) 3 and 4                           d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Ans d

Q30. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with: [2003]

a) The President of India

b) The Chief Justice of India

c) The Parliament

d) The Union Ministry of Law, justice and Company Affairs

Ans c

Q31. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands? [2003]

a) Andhra Pradesh         

b) Calcutta

c) Madras                          

d) Orissa

Ans b

Q32. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged do the: [2002]

a) Consolidated Fund of India

b) Consolidated Fund of the State

c) Contingency Fund of India

d) Contingency Fund of the State

Ans b

Q33. Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India: [2001]

I. There are eighteen High Courts in the country.

II. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one State.

III. No Union Territory has a High Court of its own.

  1. Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

a) II and IV                          b) II and III

c) I and IV                           d) IV only

Ans a

Q34. Assertion (A): Willful disobedience or non­compliance of Court orders and use of derogatory language about judicial behaviour amounts to Contempt of Court. [1997]

Reason (R): Judicial activism cannot be practised without arming the judiciary with punitive powers to punish contemptuous behaviour.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

c) A is true, but R is false

d) A is false, but R is true

Ans b

Q35. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in: [1997]

a) The United Kingdom

b) Australia

c) The United States

d) Canada

Ans c

Q36. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its: [1996]

a) Advisory jurisdiction

b) Appellate jurisdiction

c) Original jurisdiction

d) Constitutional jurisdiction

Ans c

Q37. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to: [1996]

a) The writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court

b) Special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India

c) Discretionary powers of the Governor of the state

d) Special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard

Ans a

Q38. According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘district judge’ shall not include: [1996]

a) Chief presidency magistrate

b) Sessions judge

c) Tribunal judge

d) Chief judge of a small cause court

Ans c

UPSC  Topic-wise PYQs of Polity [2025-1995]
UPSC Prelims Polity Topic-wise PYQs on Political Theories UPSC Prelims Polity Topic-wise PYQs on Fundamental Rights
UPSC Prelims Polity Topic-wise PYQs on DPSP and Fundamental Duties UPSC Prelims Polity Topic-wise PYQs on President, Vice President and Governor
UPSC Prelims Polity Topic-wise PYQs on Parliament & State Legislature UPSC Prelims Polity Topic-wise PYQs on Constitutional Bodies
UPSC Prelims Polity Topic-wise PYQs on Non Constitutional Bodies UPSC Prelims GS Paper 1 PYQ 2025 with Explanation

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