UPSC Prelims 2025 PYQ with Explanation, GS 1, Solved PYQs

The UPSC Prelims GS Paper 1 2025 featured a mix of factual, analytical, and conceptual questions across subjects like Polity, Geography, Environment, Economy, and Science. To help aspirants understand the pattern and approach better, each question is provided with a clear and concise explanation. You can read the complete set with solutions here for revision and practice.

UPSC Prelims GS Paper 1 PYQ 2025 with Explanation

CIVIL SERVICES (PRELIMINARY) EXAMINATION, 2025

General Studies Paper – I Set A

Time Allowed: Two Hours                          Maximum Marks: 200

Q1. With reference to investments, consider the following:

1. Bonds
   II. Hedge Funds
   III. Stocks
   IV. Venture Capital

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation: Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) refer to privately pooled investment funds, such as hedge funds, private equity, venture capital, etc. They are regulated under SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012.

• Hedge Funds and Venture Capital are part of AIFs.
• Bonds and Stocks are conventional investment options and fall under traditional instruments, not AIFs.
  Therefore, only II and IV are treated as AIFs.

Also Read: UPSC Prelims 2025 GS 1 Question Paper Analysis

Q2. Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?

1. Buying and selling Government Bonds
   II. Buying and selling foreign currency
   III. Pension fund management
   IV. Lending to private companies
   V. Printing and distributing currency notes

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I and II only
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III, IV and V
(d) I, II and V

Answer: (d) I, II and V

Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) earns income through several channels:

• Government Bonds trading: The RBI actively participates in open market operations, earning from bond transactions.
• Foreign exchange operations: It intervenes in the forex market to stabilize the rupee and earns from currency transactions.
• Seigniorage: The profit from printing currency (cost of production is less than face value) is a major income source.
• It does not manage pension funds or lend to private companies directly.

Q3. With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

Organization	Some of its functions	It works under
I. Directorate of Enforcement	Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018	Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence	Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Analytics and Data Management	Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

• Statement I is incorrect: The Directorate of Enforcement works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• Statements II and III are correct:
  • The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence enforces customs law and works under the Ministry of Finance.
  • The DG of Analytics & Data Management uses data for tax compliance and also works under the Ministry of Finance.

Q4. Consider the following statements:

1. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
   II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) Only II

Explanation:

• Statement I is incorrect: BRSR is mandated by SEBI, not the Reserve Bank of India.
• Statement II is correct: BRSR disclosures primarily include non-financial information such as governance, environmental performance, and social impact. It is part of ESG (Environmental, Social, and Governance) compliance efforts.

Also Read: UPSC Prelims 2025 Exam Analysis

Q5. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.

Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation:

• Statement I is incorrect. Income from certain allied agricultural activities in rural areas may be treated as agricultural income and thus exempt under specific conditions but not in all conditions.
• Statement II is correct: As per Section 2(14) of the Income Tax Act, rural agricultural land is excluded from the definition of ‘capital asset’, meaning capital gains do not apply to its sale.
  However, Statement II does not explain I, the exemption for allied activities is not due to the capital asset treatment of land.

Q6. Consider the following statements:

1. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
   II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that the group has identified.
   III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

Explanation:

• Statement I is correct: India became a formal member of the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in 2023 to ensure critical mineral supply chains.
• Statement II is incorrect: India is not self-sufficient in all 30 critical minerals; many are still imported.
• Statement III is correct: The 2023 amendment to the MMDR Act authorized the Central Government to conduct auctions for strategic minerals like lithium, REEs, etc.

Q7. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.

Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.

Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation:

• Statement I is correct: Bondholders receive fixed interest and are prioritized during liquidation, making their investment less risky compared to stockholders who bear residual risk.
• Statement II is correct: Bondholders are creditors, not owners. Stockholders (shareholders) are partial owners.
• Statement III is correct: In liquidation or repayment, companies pay bondholders before shareholders.
  Thus, II and III together explain why bondholders face lower risk.

Q8. Consider the following statements:

1. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
   II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.
   III. There is no regulatory body either to warn small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only

Explanation:

• Statement I is correct: According to global trading data, India contributes a major share of equity derivatives trading, especially in options.
• Statement II is correct: India has recently surpassed Hong Kong in terms of stock market capitalization and activity.
• Statement III is incorrect: India has a regulatory authority, SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India), which actively warns and regulates trading, including taking action against unregistered advisors.

Q9. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.

Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.

Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation:

• Circular economy focuses on minimizing waste, reusing materials, and extending product life cycles.
• This results in:
  • Less raw material extraction (Statement II)
  • Less industrial waste (Statement III)
• These two actions directly lead to lower energy consumption and GHG emissions (Statement I).
  Therefore, II and III are correct and together explain Statement I.

Q10. Consider the following statements:

1. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
   II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
   III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only

Explanation:

• Statement I is correct: Capital receipts either create a liability (like borrowings) or lead to reduction in assets (like disinvestment).
• Statement II is correct: Both borrowings and disinvestment are part of capital receipts.
• Statement III is incorrect: Interest received on loans is revenue receipt, and it does not create any liability. In fact, it is an earning.

Q11. Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:

1. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
   II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c)  Both I and II

Explanation:

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy is best known as a modern reformer who promoted rationalism, scientific thinking, and social reforms like women’s rights and the abolition of Sati.
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy was deeply rooted in Indian Philosophical tradition and had immense admiration for Upanishads and  Vedanta philosophy.

Q12. Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:

1. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
   II. Observance of strict non-violence
   III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
   IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes

How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Answer: (c) Only three

Explanation:

• The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22) included:
  • Boycott of foreign goods and law courts (✓ I)
  • Strict non-violence (✓ II)
  • Surrender of titles and honours, not retention (✗ III)
  • Encouragement to form village panchayats (✓ IV)
    Thus, only statements I, II, and IV were correct components.

Q13. The irrigation device called ‘Araghatta’ was

(a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
(b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
(c) a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
(d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand

Answer: (b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

Explanation:

• The Araghatta was an ancient mechanical irrigation device, similar to a Persian wheel, where a wheel with pots attached lifted water from a well.
• It was operated by animals (bullocks) and widely used in medieval and early modern India.

Q14. Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’, ‘Vichitrachitta’ and ‘Gunabhara’?

(a) Mahendravarman I
(b) Simhavishnu
(c) Narasimhavarman I
(d) Simhavarman

Answer: (a) Mahendravarman I

Explanation:

• Mahendravarman I, a Pallava king (7th century), was a scholar and patron of the arts.
• He assumed the titles:
  • Mattavilasa (lover of intoxication from his famous play “Mattavilasa Prahasana”)
  • Vichitrachitta (curious-minded)
  • Gunabhara (full of virtues)
• These titles reflect his literary and cultural achievements.

Q15. Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim travelled to India during the reign of

(a) Samudragupta
(b) Chandragupta II
(c) Kumaragupta I
(d) Skandagupta

Answer: (b) Chandragupta II

Explanation:

• Fa-hien visited India during the early 5th century CE (around 399–414 CE).
• He came during the reign of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) of the Gupta Empire.
• Fa-hien documented Indian society, Buddhism, and administrative systems in his travelogue.

Q16. Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

(a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)

(b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya)

(c) Rajendra I (Chola)

(d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)

Answer: (c) Rajendra I (Chola)

Explanation:

• Rajendra Chola I, son of Rajaraja Chola I, led a naval expedition in the early 11th century against the Srivijaya empire, a dominant maritime power in Southeast Asia.
• The campaign expanded the Chola influence over regions like Sumatra, Malaya, and Java, asserting dominance in international sea trade.

• The other options were rulers from different dynasties who did not engage in this campaign.

Q17. With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs:

Territorial Region  River Flowing in the Region

1. Asmaka           Godavari
2. Kamboja       Vipas

III. Avanti             Mahanadi

1. Kosala           Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All the four

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

• Asmaka – Godavari: Correct. Asmaka was located in the Deccan, near the banks of the Godavari River.
• Kamboja – Vipas: Incorrect. Kamboja was in the northwest frontier region (present-day Afghanistan); Vipas (Beas) is in the Punjab-Himachal area.
• Avanti – Mahanadi: Incorrect. Avanti was in western Madhya Pradesh, and the Mahanadi flows in Chhattisgarh/Odisha, not Avanti.
• Kosala – Sarayu: Correct. Kosala (modern Uttar Pradesh) was located along the Sarayu River.

Hence, only I and IV are correctly matched.

Q18. The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in

(a) Delhi

(b) Gwalior

(c) Ujjain

(d) Lahore

Answer: (d) Delhi

Explanation:

The Gandharva Mahavidyalaya was founded in 1901 in Lahore, but later moved and established its prominent branch in Delhi.

Vishnu Digambar Paluskar, a noted Hindustani classical vocalist, aimed to revive Indian classical music and make it more accessible to the public through formal training institutions.

Though the first branch was in Lahore (pre-partition), the main institutional structure grew in Delhi, where it gained national importance.

Q19. Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’ and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the

(a) village-level administration

(b) district-level administration

(c) provincial administration

(d) level of the central administration

Answer: (b) district-level administration

Explanation:

Pradeshikas, Rajukas, and Yuktas were administrative officers during Emperor Ashoka’s reign.

They were responsible for district-level governance, including judicial, revenue, and public welfare functions. These officers are repeatedly mentioned in Ashokan edicts as being in charge of ensuring justice and Dharma across the Mauryan empire.

 

Q20. Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:

1. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
2. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Explanation:

• Statement I is correct: The Calcutta Session of Congress (1920) formally adopted Swaraj as its goal, to be attained through peaceful and constitutional means.
• Statement II is also correct: Gandhi proposed a phased strategy, where initial non-cooperation (boycott of schools, courts, foreign goods) could escalate to civil disobedience and tax refusal if the British failed to grant Swaraj or responded repressively.

Hence, both statements are valid.

Q21. Consider the following countries:

1. Austria
   II. Bulgaria
   III. Croatia
   IV. Serbia
   V. Sweden
   VI. North Macedonia

How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?

(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only five
(d) All the six

Answer: (b) Only four

Explanation:
As of 2025, NATO members from the list include:

• Austria: Not a member
• Bulgaria: Member
• Croatia: Member
• Serbia: Not a member
• Sweden: Member (joined in 2023)
• North Macedonia: Member (joined in 2020)
  So, members are Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, North Macedonia = 4.

Correct Answer: (b) Only four

Q22. Consider the following countries:

1. Bolivia
   II. Brazil
   III. Colombia
   IV. Ecuador
   V. Paraguay
   VI. Venezuela

Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) Only five

Answer: (c) Only four

Explanation:
The Andes Mountains run through the western part of South America. They pass through:

• Bolivia ✔
• Brazil ✘ (Brazil lies east of the Andes)
• Colombia ✔
• Ecuador ✔
• Paraguay ✘
• Venezuela ✔ (though northernmost extension)
  Correct countries: Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, Venezuela = 4
  So, the correct answer is (c) Only four

Q23. Consider the following water bodies:

1. Lake Tanganyika
   II. Lake Tonlé Sap
   III. Patos Lagoon

Through how many of them does the equator pass?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

• Lake Tanganyika: Located in Central Africa, near the equator. ✘
• Lake Tonlé Sap: In Cambodia, well above the equator. ✘
• Patos Lagoon: In Brazil, far south of the equator. ✘

Q24. Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23:

1. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
   II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
   III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

• India contributes to over 75–80% of global turmeric production. ✔
• It cultivates over 30 varieties, especially in south and central India. ✔
• Telangana, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Odisha are major producers. ✔
  Hence, all three statements are correct.

Q25. Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?

1. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
   II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
   III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III only

Answer: (c) I, II and III

Explanation:

• All three are classic geological and paleontological evidences supporting Alfred Wegener’s Continental Drift Theory:
  • Ancient rock formations on Brazil and Africa coasts align perfectly. ✔
  • Similar gold deposits in Brazil and Ghana suggest shared geology. ✔
  • The Gondwana landmass connected India with South America, Africa, Antarctica, etc. ✔

Q26. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.

Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

Explanation:

• Statement I is correct: Dust levels are higher in subtropical and temperate zones due to wind circulation and arid conditions.
• Statement II is incorrect: These zones, especially subtropical deserts, have more dry winds, not less.
  Hence, only Statement I is true.

Q27. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.

Statement II:
In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Explanation:

• In January, winter prevails in the Northern Hemisphere, and land cools faster than oceans.
• Thus, air over oceans is warmer, which shifts isotherms poleward over oceans and equatorward over landmasses.
• Statement II correctly explains the bending of isotherms in Statement I.

Q28. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock, whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or less permeable rock.

Statement II:
Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.

Statement III:
Clay is not at all porous.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Explanation:

• Chalk is porous and permeable, so Statement II is correct.
• Clay is porous but has low permeability, not completely impermeable, so Statement III is incorrect.
• Statement I is correct and is best explained by Statement II alone.

Q29. Consider the following statements:

1. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.
   II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.
   III. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III only

Answer: (c) I, II and III

Explanation:
All three statements describe the greenhouse effect and its role in maintaining Earth’s surface temperature.

• Without atmosphere, Earth would be much colder.
• Atmospheric gases trap heat through radiative absorption.
  Hence, all three are correct.

Q30. Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:

1. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
   II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Explanation:
The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (under the National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development) focuses on:

• Improving indigenous breeds
• Supporting rural farmers and cattle rearers, especially marginal and landless farmers
  Hence, both statements are correct.

Q31. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.

Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.

Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Correct Answer: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Explanation:

Statement I is true – cement manufacturing contributes significantly (around 5–8%) to global CO₂ emissions.

Statement II is also correct – silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone to make raw cement material.

Statement III is also correct – limestone is calcined (heated) to form lime and CO₂ in clinker production, which is a major source of CO₂ emissions.

However, only Statement III explains why cement production emits CO₂ (due to limestone decomposition), not the mixing of clay (Statement II).

Hence, only Statement III explains Statement I, making (b) correct.

Q32. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.

Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.

Statement III: If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its healthcare system may be compromised.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Correct Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Explanation:

Statement I is true – India did not sign the Declaration at COP28.

Statement II is incorrect – the COP28 Declaration is non-binding, it’s a voluntary declaration.

Statement III is plausible – if hasty decarbonization occurs, especially in developing countries, it may compromise healthcare resilience.

Thus, only Statement III is correct, and it gives a possible reason why India refrained from signing. Hence, (c) is the correct answer.

Q33. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.

Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with a tremendous amount of energy.

Statement III: As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Correct Answer: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Explanation:

Statement I is true – recent studies show that Earth’s rotational axis is shifting, which is linked to mass redistribution (especially from melting glaciers).

Statement II is also scientifically accurate, but it does not directly relate to the shift in Earth’s axis.

Statement III is also correct – melting ice redistributes mass on Earth, contributing to changes in Earth’s rotational axis.

Therefore, only Statement III explains Statement I, although both II and III are correct.

Hence, (b) is the correct answer.

Q34. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.

Statement II:
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.

Statement III:
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation:

• Article 6 of the Paris Agreement allows for market-based mechanisms (carbon credits) and non-market-based cooperation for emission reduction.
• Hence, both II and III are true and provide the reasons for why Article 6 is globally discussed (Statement I).

Q35. Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific’?

(a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
(c) The New Development Bank (NDB)
(d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Answer: (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

Explanation:

• The Nature Solutions Finance Hub was launched by ADB to promote nature-based climate solutions in the Asia-Pacific region.
• It aims to finance sustainable land use, water conservation, and biodiversity.

Q36. With reference to ‘Direct Air Capture’, an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
   II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
   III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I and II only
(b) II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (c) I, II and III

Explanation:

• Direct Air Capture (DAC) removes CO₂ directly from the atmosphere.
• Captured CO₂ can be:
  • Stored underground (carbon sequestration)
  • Used to make plastics or beverages
  • Combined with hydrogen to make synthetic fuels (e.g., in aviation)
    Thus, all three statements are valid.

Q37. Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:

1. It is an omnivorous crustacean.
   II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
   III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) I and III
(c) II only
(d) II and III

Answer: (d) II and III

Explanation:

• The Peacock Tarantula (Poecilotheria metallica) is an arboreal spider, not a crustacean. So I is incorrect.
• It is found only in a few forest patches in Andhra Pradesh, making it endemic and vulnerable.
• It lives in trees (arboreal).
• Thus, statements II and III are correct.

Q38. Consider the following statements:

1. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂ per capita.
   II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.
   III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and III only
(b) II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) II and III only

Explanation:

• Statement I is incorrect: India’s per capita CO₂ emissions are now above 1.8 metric tons (as per recent data).
• Statement II is correct: India ranks second after China in Asia-Pacific in CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion.
• Statement III is correct: The energy sector (electricity and heat production) contributes the most to CO₂ emissions in India.

Q39. Consider the following pairs:

Plant	Description
I. Cassava	Woody shrub
II. Ginger	Herb with pseudostem
III. Malabar spinach	Herbaceous climber
IV. Mint	Annual shrub
V. Papaya	Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All the five

Answer: (b) Only three

Explanation:

• Cassava: Shrubby plant with woody base – Correct
• Ginger: Grows with a pseudostem – Correct
• Malabar spinach: A fast-growing herbaceous climber – Correct
• Mint: Grows as a perennial herbaceous plant, not strictly an annual shrub – Incorrect
• Papaya: Technically a tree-like herb, but described botanically as a giant herb, not a woody shrub – Incorrect

Therefore, only three are fully correct.

Q40. With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

1. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
   II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen.
   III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II only
(c) I and III
(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (b) II only

Explanation:

• Statement I is incorrect: While rainforests are called the “lungs of the Earth”, oceans (via phytoplankton and cyanobacteria) produce 50–80% of global oxygen.
• Statement II is correct: Marine plankton and cyanobacteria are responsible for about 50% of Earth’s oxygen through photosynthesis.
• Statement III is incorrect: Surface water has lower oxygen concentration than air — oxygen is more soluble in air than in water, hence the statement is false.

Q41. Consider the following types of vehicles:

1. Full battery electric vehicles
   II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
   III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles

How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Explanation:
All three vehicle types use non-conventional power sources instead of internal combustion engines:

• Full battery EVs: Use only electric power
• Hydrogen fuel cell: Generate electricity onboard using hydrogen
• Fuel cell-electric hybrids: Combine fuel cells with electric battery support

Q42. With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:

1. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
   II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
   III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.

How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

• Vertical landing is possible only for some UAVs (like drones), not all.
  Hovering is specific to multirotor drones, not fixed-wing UAVs.
• UAVs can be powered by fuel, battery, or solar, not just battery.
  None of the three statements are true for all UAVs.

Q43. In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:

1. Cobalt
   II. Graphite
   III. Lithium
   IV. Nickel

How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Answer: (c) Only three

Explanation:

• Cobalt, Nickel, and Lithium are commonly used in cathodes of Li-ion batteries.
• Graphite is typically used in the anode, not cathode.

Q44. Consider the following:

1. Cigarette butts
   II. Eyeglass lenses
   III. Car tyres

How many of them contain plastic?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Explanation:
All the listed items contain synthetic polymers:

• Cigarette butts: Cellulose acetate (plastic)
• Eyeglass lenses: Made of polycarbonate
• Car tyres: Contain synthetic rubber, a form of plastic

Q45. Consider the following substances:

1. Ethanol
   II. Nitroglycerine
   III. Urea

Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Explanation:

• Ethanol: Can be derived via syngas (synthesis gas) from coal gasification
• Urea: Produced using ammonia, which is derived from coal gasification
• Nitroglycerine: While not directly made from coal gasification, nitric acid and glycerol can be sourced indirectly via chemical routes involving syngas

Q46. What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

(a) These are alternatives to hydrofluorocarbon refrigerants
(b) These are explosives in military weapons
(c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
(d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion

Answer: (b) These are explosives in military weapons

Explanation:
CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 are high-energy explosives used in advanced munitions and defense applications for their high detonation velocity and stability.

Q47. Consider the following statements:

1. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.
   II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
   III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

Explanation:

• Majorana particles are theoretically expected to be useful in quantum computing.
• Majorana 1 chip is not developed by AWS (as of latest info).
• Deep learning is indeed a subset of machine learning based on neural networks.

Q48. With reference to monoclonal antibodies, consider the following statements:

1. They are man-made proteins.
   II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
   III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

• Monoclonal antibodies are synthetic proteins engineered to bind specific antigens.
• They stimulate immune responses and are being used in Ebola, COVID-19, and Nipah treatments.

Q49. Consider the following statements:

1. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
   II. No virus can infect bacteria.
   III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

• Viruses are present in oceans (e.g., bacteriophages).
• Bacteriophages infect bacteria.
• Many viruses alter transcriptional activity in host cells (e.g., HIV, HPV).
  All three are incorrect.

Q50. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
Activated carbon is a good and attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.

Statement II:
Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.

Statement III:
Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation:

• Activated carbon is highly porous and derived from waste biomass.
• It has high surface area, used in water purification, industrial effluent treatment, etc.
• Both II and III explain why it is a useful remediation tool (Statement I).

Q51. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

1. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
   II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
   III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

Explanation:

• Statement I: Ordinances have the same force as Acts of Parliament; hence they can amend Central Acts. ✔
• Statement II: Like laws, they cannot abridge Fundamental Rights if it satisfies the test of reasonableness and is within constitutional limits. 
• Statement III: Ordinances can be made retrospective, i.e., effective from a past date. ✔

Q52. Consider the following pairs:

State	Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh	The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland	The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura	Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Explanation:

• Arunachal Pradesh: Its capital, Itanagar, is named after Ita Fort, and it has Namdapha and Mouling National Parks. ✔
• Nagaland: Became a state in 1963 via the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act. ✔
• Tripura: Was a Part ‘C’ State, became Union Territory, and got statehood in 1972. ✔

Q53. With reference to India, consider the following:

1. The Inter-State Council
   II. The National Security Council
   III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:

• Inter-State Council: Set up under Article 263 – Constitutional body ✔
• Zonal Councils: Created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 – Statutory body ✘
• National Security Council: Established by executive order in 1998 – Executive body ✘
  So, only the Inter-State Council is constitutionally mandated.

Q54. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
   II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only

Explanation:

• Statement I: Article 163(1) provides discretionary powers to the Governor, explicitly in matters like Sixth Schedule areas, etc. ✔
• Statement II: The President cannot directly reserve a state bill. It must be forwarded by the Governor. ✘

Q55. Consider the following pairs:

Provision in the Constitution of India	Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State	The Directive Principles of State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture	The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories	The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Explanation:

• I: Separation of judiciary and executive is stated in Article 50 under Directive Principles. ✔
• II: Preserving cultural heritage is a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(f). ✔
• III: Prohibition of child labour under Article 24 is part of Fundamental Rights. ✔
  All are correctly matched.

Q56. Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule:

1. The State Government loses its executive power in such areas, and the local body assumes total administration.
2. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Scheduled Areas are governed by the State Government, but the Governor has special powers under the Fifth Schedule to modify or nullify laws.
• The Union Government does not directly take over administration.
• Hence, both statements are incorrect.

Q57. Consider the following pairs:

Organization	Union Ministry
I. The National Automotive Board	Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board	Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information	Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

• The National Automotive Board is under Ministry of Heavy Industries ✘
• Coir Board works under Ministry of MSME, not Heavy Industries. ✘
• National Centre for Trade Information was under Ministry of Commerce & Industry, not MSME. ✘

Q58. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:

1. List I – Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
2. Extent of the executive power of a State

III. Conditions of the Governor’s office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the Bill to the President of India for assent?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer: (a) I and II only

Explanation: As per Article 368(2), any constitutional amendment that affects:

• the Union List,
• the extent of the executive powers of States, or

Q59. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

1. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
2. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
3. The Governor is not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Article 361 of the Indian Constitution provides immunity to the Governor from court proceedings for actions taken in office.
• Also, the Governor enjoys the same privileges as MPs/MLAs in the House.
• All statements are correct.

Q60. Consider the following activities:

1. Production of crude oil
2. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
3. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
4. Production of natural gas

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) in India?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Answer: ()b Only two

Explanation:

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006. The Act provides for the establishment of a Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas and to promote competitive markets.

• Only options 2 and 3 are correct. As per the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, the board has been mandated to regulate the refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas excluding production of crude oil and natural gas.

Q61. Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores.
Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores.
2. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores.
3. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

• Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts = ₹80,000 – ₹60,000 = ₹20,000 ✔
• Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Receipts excluding borrowings = ₹70,000 (₹60,000 revenue + ₹10,000 borrowings) – ₹60,000 = ₹10,000 ✔
• Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments = ₹10,000 – ₹6,000 = ₹4,000 ✔

Q62. India is one of the founding members of the International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect
(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
(b) India to Central Asia via China
(c) India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan

Answer: (a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

Explanation:

• The International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a 7,200 km-long multimodal network (ship, rail, and road) to move freight between India, Iran, Central Asia, and Europe, especially via Iran and Azerbaijan.
• Option (a) is the most precise description of the INSTC route.

Q63. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation:

• USA is the largest producer of ethanol in the world, not Brazil. ❌
• Brazil uses sugarcane, while USA primarily uses corn for ethanol production. ✔
  So, only Statement II is correct.

Q64. The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C.  Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?

1. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
2. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Explanation:

• Statement I is correct: This statement accurately reflects the broader climatic risks that Peninsular India faces due to climate change, which are interconnected with the rise in wet-bulb temperatures.
• Statement II is correct: This statement accurately captures the core implication of the World Bank’s warning.
• When wet-bulb temperatures exceed 35 °C, the human body can no longer effectively cool itself through sweating and evaporation, which are essential to regulate internal body temperature.

Q65. A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

(a) ₹48,500 crores
(b) ₹51,500 crores
(c) ₹58,500 crores
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) ₹48,500 crores

Explanation:

• Fiscal Deficit = ₹50,000 crores
• Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments = ₹50,000 – ₹1,500 = ₹48,500 crores

Q66. Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?

1. It has recommended grants of ₹48,000 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
2. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
3. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
4. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV

Answer: (c) I, III and IV

Explanation:

• Statement I is correct – The 15th Finance Commission did recommend grants for educational outcomes.
• Statement II is incorrect – The actual devolution of taxes recommended is 41%, not 45%.
• Statement III is correct – Performance-based grants were indeed recommended for agricultural reforms.
• Statement IV is correct – The tax effort criterion was reintroduced to reward States showing better fiscal performance.

Q67. Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):

1. It provides loans and guarantees to middle-income countries.
2. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
3. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

Explanation:

• Statement I is correct – IBRD provides loans to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries.
• Statement II is incorrect – It works with other organizations like IDA (International Development Association), not alone.
• Statement III is correct – IBRD was established in 1944 (Bretton Woods Conference) primarily to rebuild Europe after WWII.

Q68. Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:

1. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous, while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
2. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
3. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

Which of the statements above are correct?

1. I only
2. I and II
3. I and III
4. III only

Correct Answer: (a) I only

Explanation:

Statement I – Correct

• RTGS (Real-Time Gross Settlement) processes transactions instantly and individually in real time.
• NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) processes transactions in batches, so there may be some delay.

Statement II – Incorrect

• Inward RTGS transactions are not charged to the customer by RBI guidelines.
• Charges may apply for outward RTGS, but inward RTGS transactions are free, just like in NEFT.

Statement III – Incorrect

• Previously, both RTGS and NEFT operated only during specific hours on working days. However, major reforms by the Reserve Bank of India have now made both services available 24×7, 365 days a year.

Q69. Consider the following countries:

1. United Arab Emirates
2. France
3. Germany
4. Singapore
5. Bangladesh

How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All the five

Answer: (b) Only three

Explanation:
As of now, UPI (Unified Payments Interface) is accepted for international merchant payments in the following countries other than India:

United Arab Emirates (UAE)

France

Singapore

Sri Lanka

Mauritius

Bhutan

Nepal

Hence, among the countries mentioned in the question, only three—United Arab Emirates, France, and Singapore—officially support UPI for international merchant payments. Germany and Bangladesh do not currently have UPI integration.

Hence, Only four of the above list are accepted (excluding Germany or Bangladesh depending on date).

Q70. Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’:

1. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
2. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroots levels.
3. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and upskilling, under scheme component of capacity building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

• The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, launched in 2024, aims to:
  • Install 1 crore solar rooftop systems. ✔
  • Promote training and repair through MNRE. ✔
  • Provide capacity building and create skilled manpower across India. ✔

Q71. “Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

1. a) the Champaran Satyagraha
   (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
   (c) attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
   (d) the launch of the Quit India Movement

Answer: (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi

Explanation:
The famous statement “Sedition has become my religion” was made by Mahatma Gandhi on 6th April 1930 at Dandi, when he broke the Salt Law as part of the Civil Disobedience Movement. This act marked a symbolic rejection of British authority and galvanized nationwide protests.

On 6th April, Gandhi Ji reached Dandi, picked up a handful of salt and broke the salt law as a symbol of the Indian People’s refusal to live under British-made laws and therefore under British rule. Gandhi Ji declared :

Q72. The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of:
(a) carnelian
(b) clay
(c) bronze
(d) gold

Answer: (c) bronze

Explanation:
The ‘Dancing Girl’ is a world-famous artifact of the Indus Valley Civilization, made of bronze using the lost-wax technique, representing early metallurgy and artistic expression.

Q73. Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?
(a) C. R. Das
(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
(c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
(d) M. A. Jinnah

Answer: (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant

Explanation:
Madan Mohan Malaviya, a noted freedom fighter and lawyer, along with Krishna Kant, defended the accused in the Chauri Chaura case (1922), where violent protests had led to the death of policemen.

Q74. Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?
(a) The Poona Pact
(b) The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
(c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (a) The Poona Pact

Explanation:
After the Poona Pact (1932) between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Gandhiji focused on the upliftment of Harijans (Dalits) and began campaigns to eliminate untouchability.

Q75. Consider the following fruits:

1. Papaya
2. Pineapple
3. Guava

How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the 16th and 17th centuries?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Explanation:
The Portuguese introduced several New World crops to India during the colonial era, including papaya, pineapple, and guava, all of which originated in the Americas.

Q76. Consider the following countries:

1. United Kingdom
2. Denmark
3. New Zealand
4. Australia
5. Brazil

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
(a) All the five
(b) Only four
(c) Only three
(d) Only two

Answer: (d) Only three

Explanation:

• Australia has 3 standard time zones and multiple DST variants.
• Brazil has 4 time zones (used to be more).
• UK has 9 time zones 
• Denmark, New Zealand have only 1 time zone each (NZ has islands but not more than 4).

Hence, only Australia, UK and Brazil have more than 4 time zones (based on older configuration for Brazil).

Q77. Consider the following statements:

1. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
2. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only

Explanation:
Anadyr (Russia) and Nome (USA) lie on either side of the International Date Line (IDL), so although geographically close, they are nearly 21 hours apart, hence it could be different days.
Statement II is wrong — When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Sunday in Nome, not Tuesday.

Q78. Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’?
(a) ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav
(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar

Answer: (a) ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

Explanation:
Self-Respect Movement was launched in 1925 by Periyar in Tamil Nadu to fight against caste hierarchy, Brahmanical dominance, and promote rationalism and equality.

Q79. Consider the following pairs:

Country	Resource-rich in
I. Botswana	Diamond
II. Chile	Lithium
III. Indonesia	Nickel

How many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Explanation:

• Botswana is known for diamond mining. ✔
• Chile is the world’s largest producer of lithium. ✔
• Indonesia is rich in nickel reserves. ✔

All are correctly matched.

Q80. Consider the following pairs:

Region	Country
I. Mallorca	Italy
II. Normandy	Spain
III. Sardinia	France

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

• Mallorca is part of Spain, not Italy ❌
• Normandy is a region in France, not Spain ❌
• Sardinia belongs to Italy, not France ❌

Hence, none of the pairs are correct.

81. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.
Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a)
Explanation: Rare earth elements like europium and terbium are used in screens because of their phosphorescent properties. Hence, Statement II explains Statement I.

82. Consider the following statements:
83. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028.
    II. ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
    III. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a)
Explanation:

• Statement I is incorrect. The National Rail Plan (NRP) has been developed with the aim of creating a ‘future ready’ railway system by the year 2030, not 2028.
• II is incorrect; Kavach is indigenously developed.
• Statement III is correct. The Kavach system uses Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) tags placed on the railway tracks, especially in station sections. These tags work in coordination with onboard and trackside equipment to detect train location, and automatically apply brakes in case of collision threats, signal violations, or overspeeding.

83. Consider the following space missions:
84. Axiom-4
    II. SpaDeX
    III. Gaganyaan

How many of the space missions given above encourage and support microgravity research?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (c)
Explanation: All three missions are associated with microgravity experiments—Axiom-4 (ISS-based), SpaDeX (technology demonstration), and Gaganyaan (includes experiments in microgravity).

84. With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs:

Aircraft type	Description
I. Dornier-228	Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76	Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globemaster III	Military transport aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (b)
Explanation:

• Dornier-228 is correctly matched.
• IL-76 is a heavy-lift transport aircraft, not a supersonic combat aircraft.
• C-17 Globemaster III is correctly matched.

85. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of:

(a) Silver iodide and potassium iodide
(b) Silver nitrate and potassium iodide
(c) Silver iodide and potassium nitrate
(d) Silver nitrate and potassium chloride

Answer: (a)
Explanation: Silver iodide and potassium iodide are used in cloud seeding operations to artificially induce rainfall and settle airborne pollutants.

86. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
87. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
    II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a)
Explanation:

• Statement I is correct; judicial review is limited to checking the manner in which the power is exercised.
• Statement II is incorrect; the President must act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.

87. Consider the following statements:
88. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
    II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
    III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c)
Explanation:

• I and III are correct as per Article 94 and Rules of Procedure.
• II is incorrect; there is no constitutional mandate for the Speaker to resign from their political party.

88. Consider the following statements:
89. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
    II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II
Explanation:

• I is incorrect;The Tenth Schedule clearly states that in case of any question on disqualification under it, the decision is to be made by the Speaker or the Chairman of the House, not the President. This is clearly provided under the Tenth Schedule. The President has no role in disqualification under the anti-defection law, unlike disqualification under Articles 102 and 191 which are decided by the President/Governor after consulting the Election Commission.
• II is incorrect; the term “political party” is explicitly mentioned in the Tenth Schedule.

89. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d)
Explanation:

• Statement I is incorrect; states have the authority to regulate minor minerals under the Mines and Minerals Act.
• Statement II is correct; the Central Government notifies what qualifies as a minor mineral.

90. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

(a) The European Union
(b) The World Bank
(c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) The Food and Agriculture Organization

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) is a legislation passed by the European Union in 2023 to restore degraded ecosystems and address biodiversity loss and climate change.

91. Consider the following statements:
92. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
    II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
    III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III
Explanation:

• I is incorrect: Only states with a population above 20 lakhs have intermediate level Panchayats.
• II is incorrect: The minimum age is 21 years, not 30.
• III is incorrect: The Chief Minister of a State does not constitute a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats. Instead, the Governor of a State constitutes a Finance Commission, as per Article 243I of the Indian Constitution, to review the financial position of Panchayats and make recommendations regarding the distribution of taxes and duties between the State and Panchayats.

92. Consider the following statements regarding BIMSTEC:
93. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
    II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
    III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding members of BIMSTEC.
    IV. In BIMSTEC, the sub-sector of ‘tourism’ is being led by India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) I only

Answer: (d) I only
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: BIMSTEC currently consists of 7 members.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. BIMSTEC was originally formed as BIST-EC in June 1997. It was founded as BIST-EC, in June 1997, with the adoption of the Bangkok Declaration.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand are founding members of this organisation. It was originally formed as BIST-EC (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation) in 1997. It became BIMST-EC after Myanmar joined it in 1997 itself.
• Statement 4 is incorrect. BIMSTEC is different from other regional groupings such as SAARC or ASEAN in a sense that it is a sector-driven organisation. This means the goals or areas of cooperation are divided between members. India is the Lead Country for Security pillar under which there are three sub-sectors – Counter-Terrorism and Transnational Crime (CTTC), Disaster Management and Energy Security.

93. Who among the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’?
94. The President of India
    II. The Prime Minister of India
    III. The Chief Justice of India
    IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I and IV only
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and III only

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The jury includes:

• Prime Minister (Chairperson)
• Chief Justice of India
• Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
• Other eminent persons (President is not part of the jury).

94. GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) system:
95. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
    II. It will allow more uniform and high-quality traffic management.
    III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transport.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) I, II and III
(b) II and III only
(c) I only
(d) I and II only

Answer: (d)
Explanation:

• I is correct: GAGAN enhances GPS accuracy.
• II is correct: It aids better traffic and navigation systems.
• III is incorrect: GAGAN benefits railways, agriculture, and road transport too.

95. Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in Februray, 2025:
96. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances amde at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
    II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only

Explanation: Statement I is correct:

The AI Action Summit held in February 2025 at the Grand Palais in Paris was co-chaired by France and India. The summit followed the earlier high-level global AI meetings:

• Bletchley Park Summit (UK, 2023)
• Seoul Summit (South Korea, 2024)

These events emphasized safe, inclusive, and responsible AI, and the Paris summit built on their outcomes.

Statement II is correct:

Fifty eight countries, including India, China, Brazil, France and Australia, signed a joint statement on Inclusive and Sustainable Artificial Intelligence for People and the Planet at the AI Action Summit in Paris. The statement was not signed by the United States and the United Kingdom.

96. Match the following pairs:
97. International Year of the Woman Farmer – 2026
    II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism – 2027
    III. International Year of Peace and Trust – 2025
    IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence – 2029

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Answer: (d) All the four
Explanation:

• Pair I: Proposed by India, confirmed for 2026 – Correct
• Pair II: Declared for 2027 – Correct
• Pair III: Declared by UN for 2025 – correct
• Pair IV: Declared by UN for 2029 – Correct

97. Consider the following statements regarding BRICS:
98. The 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairmanship of Russia in Kazan.
    II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
    III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was “Strengthening Multilateralism”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I only

Answer: (a) I and II
Explanation:

• I is correct: The 16th BRICS Summit was held under Russia’s Chairship, in Kazan. At the conclusion of the Summit, the leaders adopted the ‘Kazan Declaration’. The 17th BRICS Summit will be hosted by Brazil.
• II is correct: Indonesia joined as a member in the BRICS+ expansion.
• III is incorrect: The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was “Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security.”

98. Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
99. The power of Lokpal applies to Indian public servants, but not to those posted outside India.
    II. The Chairperson must not be a Member of Parliament or State Legislature.
    III. Chairperson must be above 45 years of age.
    IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into allegations against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) III only
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (a) III only
Explanation:

• I is incorrect: Jurisdiction includes Indian public servants abroad.
• II is incorrect: Retired CJI or judges can be Chairperson.
• III is correct: Section 3 of the Lokpal Act says that the Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age, on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
• IV is incorrect: Lokpal can inquire against PM under certain conditions.

99. Consider the following statements regarding the first Kho Kho World Cup:
100. The event was held in Delhi, India.
     II. Indian men beat Nepal to become World Champions in the men’s category.
     III. Indian women beat Nepal to become World Champions in the women’s category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. The inaugural Kho Kho World Cup was held in New Delhi in January 2025. India secured the titles in both men’s and women’s competitions.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The men’s team also secured a 54-36 win over Nepal in the title clash.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. India’s women’s team clinched the inaugural Kho Kho World Cup with a commanding 78-40 win over Nepal.

100. Consider the following statements:
101. In the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating Ian Nepomniachtchi.
     II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record for being the world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b)  II only
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect. D Gukesh won his second individual gold medal in a row at the 45th Chess Olympiad. Indian Grandmaster D Gukesh, at 18, became the youngest world chess champion by defeating Ding Liren in the 2024 FIDE World Chess Championship held in Singapore.
• Statement 2 is correct. Abhimanyu Mishra, a U.S. player of Indian origin, is the youngest GrandMaster in history, at 12 years, four months and 25 days. He obliterated the long-standing record held by Sergey Karjakin, who was 12 years and seven months old when he attained the title.