UPSC Prelims Practice Questions on Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)

UPSC Prelims Practice Questions on Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are designed to test conceptual clarity on Part IV of the Constitution, including Articles 36–51, their classification (Gandhian, Socialist, and Liberal-Intellectual), and their non-justiciable yet fundamental role in governance. Questions often integrate constitutional amendments (especially the 42nd and 86th Amendments), the relationship between Fundamental Rights and DPSP, and landmark judgments like Kesavananda Bharati and Minerva Mills.

Topic-Wise Frequency Mapping (1993–2025)

The analysis below is based on the DPSP-related PYQs you provided (1993–2021), covering themes like Welfare State, Article 39, Article 50, international peace, FR–DPSP conflict, amendments, and Fundamental Duties overlap. The trend clearly shows a shift from static Article-based recall (1990s–early 2000s) to analytical, amendment-linked, and inter-constitutional themes (post-2010).

UPSC Prelims Practice Questions on Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)

Question 1: With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy, consider the following statements:

1. They are binding on the legislature in the same manner as Fundamental Rights.
2. They are fundamental in the governance of the country.
3. They can override Fundamental Rights if Parliament so decides.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: DPSPs are non-justiciable and not binding like Fundamental Rights (FRs), making Statement 1 incorrect. Article 37 clearly states they are “fundamental in the governance of the country,” making Statement 2 correct. They cannot override Fundamental Rights arbitrarily; post-Kesavananda Bharati, harmony and balance between FR and DPSP is part of Basic Structure, so Statement 3 is incorrect.

Question 2: Which of the following provisions were added to the Directive Principles by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?

1. Equal justice and free legal aid
2. Participation of workers in management
3. Protection and improvement of environment

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 3 only

Answer: c)

Explanation: The 42nd Amendment added Articles 39A (free legal aid), 43A (workers’ participation in management), and 48A (environmental protection). UPSC repeatedly tests this amendment. All three were inserted in 1976.

Question 3: Consider the following statements regarding Gandhian Principles under DPSP:

1. Organization of village Panchayats
2. Promotion of cottage industries in rural areas
3. Uniform Civil Code
4. Prohibition of intoxicating drinks

Which of the above are Gandhian principles?

a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: a)

Explanation: Gandhian principles include village panchayats (Art. 40), cottage industries (Art. 43), and prohibition (Art. 47). Uniform Civil Code (Art. 44) belongs to Liberal-Intellectual principles. UPSC frequently creates traps by mixing these categories.

Question 4 In the context of constitutional interpretation, which of the following statements is correct?

a) Directive Principles are superior to Fundamental Rights.
b) Fundamental Rights are superior to Directive Principles.
c) Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is part of the Basic Structure.
d) Directive Principles can be enforced through writ jurisdiction under Article 32.

Answer: c)

Explanation: After the landmark Kesavananda Bharati judgment (1973) and later Minerva Mills (1980), the Supreme Court held that harmony between FR and DPSP is part of the Basic Structure. Neither is superior in absolute terms. DPSPs remain non-justiciable.

Question 5: Which of the following objectives directly flow from Article 38 of the Constitution?

1. Minimizing inequalities in income
2. Securing a Uniform Civil Code
3. Promoting welfare of the people

Select the correct answer:

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: Article 38 mandates the State to promote welfare and minimize inequalities. Uniform Civil Code is under Article 44, not Article 38. UPSC often tests precise Article mapping.

Question 6: Which of the following is correctly matched?

a) Article 39A – Equal pay for equal work
b) Article 43A – Participation of workers in management
c) Article 48A – Organization of village Panchayats
d) Article 50 – Uniform Civil Code

Answer: b)

Explanation: Article 43A deals with workers’ participation (added by 42nd Amendment). Equal pay for equal work is Article 39(d). Village Panchayats is Article 40. Article 50 deals with separation of judiciary from executive.

Question 7: The principle of separation of judiciary from executive in public services is:

a) A Fundamental Right
b) A Directive Principle
c) A Fundamental Duty
d) A convention derived from British practice

Answer: b)

Explanation: Article 50 under DPSP directs the State to separate judiciary from executive. It is non-justiciable but constitutionally mandated. UPSC often frames this as a governance question.

Question 8:  Consider the following statements:

1. DPSPs were inspired by the Irish Constitution.
2. They aim to establish political democracy in India.
3. They reflect the concept of a Welfare State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: DPSPs were borrowed from the Irish Constitution. They aim to establish social and economic democracy (not merely political democracy). They embody the Welfare State ideal.

Question 9: Which of the following falls under Liberal-Intellectual principles of DPSP?

1. Uniform Civil Code
2. Promotion of international peace
3. Protection of monuments

Select the correct answer:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 3 only

Answer: c)

Explanation: Articles 44 (UCC), 51 (international peace), and 49 (protection of monuments) fall under Liberal-Intellectual principles. UPSC tests classification frequently.

Also Read: UPSC Prelims Practice Questions on Fundamental Rights

Question 10: The constitutional objective of preventing concentration of wealth is primarily embodied in:

a) Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 39(c)
d) Article 368

Answer: c)

Explanation: Article 39(c) directs the State to ensure that the operation of the economic system does not result in concentration of wealth to the common detriment. This was directly asked in UPSC 2021. It reflects the socialist orientation of DPSP.

Question 11: With reference to Article 39 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. It directs the State to secure equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
2. It mandates that ownership and control of material resources should be distributed to subserve the common good.
3. It guarantees the right to work to all citizens as an enforceable right.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: Article 39(d) provides equal pay for equal work, and Article 39(b) & (c) deal with equitable distribution of resources and prevention of concentration of wealth. However, right to work as an enforceable right is not guaranteed under Article 39; Article 41 speaks of right to work subject to economic capacity of the State and is non-justiciable. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Question 12: Which of the following provisions under DPSP reflect the socialist principles of the Constitution?

1. Securing living wage and humane conditions of work
2. Organization of village Panchayats
3. Provision of free legal aid
4. Protection of environment

Select the correct answer:

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: b)

Explanation: Socialist principles include Articles 38, 39, 39A, 41, 42, 43, 43A, and 48A. Living wage (Art. 43), free legal aid (Art. 39A), and environmental protection (Art. 48A) are socialist. Organization of village Panchayats (Art. 40) is Gandhian.

Question 13: Consider the following statements regarding Article 44 of the Constitution:

1. It seeks to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens throughout India.
2. It is enforceable by courts under writ jurisdiction.
3. It applies only to citizens and not to non-citizens.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b)

Explanation: Article 44 provides for a Uniform Civil Code and specifically refers to “citizens.” However, as part of DPSP, it is non-justiciable and cannot be enforced through writ jurisdiction. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Question 14: In the context of Article 51 of the Constitution, which of the following objectives are envisaged?

1. Promotion of international peace and security
2. Maintenance of just and honorable relations between nations
3. Settlement of international disputes by arbitration

Select the correct answer:

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d)

Explanation: Article 51 includes all three objectives and reflects Liberal-Intellectual principles inspired by global constitutionalism and international law ideals.

Question 15:  Which of the following statements best describes the constitutional position of DPSP?

a) They are negative obligations imposed on the State.
b) They impose moral and political obligations on the State.
c) They are enforceable only during a National Emergency.
d) They automatically override inconsistent Fundamental Rights.

Answer: b)

Explanation: DPSPs impose moral and political obligations; they are positive obligations requiring State action. They are not enforceable even during emergency and do not automatically override FRs. Judicial doctrine emphasizes harmony, not supremacy.

Question 16: Consider the following pairs:

1. Article 40 – Organization of village Panchayats
2. Article 43A – Protection of monuments
3. Article 48 – Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry
4. Article 49 – Participation of workers in management

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: a)

Explanation: Article 40 relates to village Panchayats. Article 48 concerns agriculture and animal husbandry. Article 49 deals with protection of monuments. Article 43A concerns workers’ participation. Hence only 1 and 3 are correct.

Question 17: The concept of “Social and Economic Democracy” in the Constitution is primarily sought to be realized through:

a) Fundamental Rights alone
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Fundamental Duties
d) Judicial review

Answer: b)

Explanation: DPSPs aim to establish social and economic democracy, complementing the political democracy ensured through Fundamental Rights. This was directly emphasized in early Constituent Assembly debates.

Question 18: Which of the following statements regarding Article 39A is correct?

a) It guarantees free legal aid as a Fundamental Right.
b) It was inserted by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.
c) It directs the State to ensure equal justice and free legal aid.
d) It applies only to criminal proceedings.

Answer: c)

Explanation: Article 39A was inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, and directs the State to promote equal justice and free legal aid. It is not a Fundamental Right and is not confined only to criminal proceedings.

Question 19: Consider the following statements:

1. DPSPs can be amended by Parliament under Article 368.
2. DPSPs cannot be used by courts for constitutional interpretation.
3. Laws implementing DPSPs can be protected under Article 31C.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: DPSPs can be amended like any other constitutional provision under Article 368. Courts frequently use DPSPs in interpretation (e.g., expanding Article 21), so Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 31C protects certain laws implementing Articles 39(b) and (c).

Question 20: Which of the following provisions reflect Gandhian philosophy in DPSP?

1. Promotion of cottage industries
2. Prohibition of cow slaughter
3. Protection of environment
4. Organization of village Panchayats

Select the correct answer:

a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: a)

Explanation: Gandhian principles include village Panchayats (Art. 40), cottage industries (Art. 43), and prohibition of cow slaughter (Art. 48). Environmental protection (Art. 48A) is a socialist principle added by the 42nd Amendment.

Question 21: With reference to the origin and nature of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), consider the following statements:

1. The idea of DPSP in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland.
2. The Irish Constitution itself derived the concept of Directive Principles from the Spanish Constitution.
3. DPSPs were incorporated to establish political democracy in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b)

Explanation: DPSPs were borrowed from the Irish Constitution (1937), which in turn drew inspiration from the Spanish Constitution. However, DPSPs aim at establishing social and economic democracy, not merely political democracy (which is primarily secured through Fundamental Rights). Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Question 22: Which of the following Articles were added to Part IV of the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?

1. Article 39A
2. Article 43A
3. Article 48A
4. Article 45

Select the correct answer:

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: a)

Explanation: The 42nd Amendment inserted Articles 39A (Free Legal Aid), 43A (Workers’ Participation), and 48A (Environment Protection). Article 45 originally existed (free and compulsory education for children up to 14 years) but was modified later by the 86th Amendment.

Question 24: Which of the following Constitutional Amendments strengthened the relationship between Fundamental Rights and DPSP by making education a Fundamental Right?

a) 42nd Amendment
b) 44th Amendment
c) 86th Amendment
d) 97th Amendment

Answer: c)

Explanation: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A (Right to Education) as a Fundamental Right and modified Article 45 of DPSP. It also added a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k). This amendment reflects the interlinking of FR, DPSP, and FD.

Question 25: With reference to the relationship between Fundamental Rights and DPSP, consider the following statements:

1. In the Champakam Dorairajan case (1951), the Supreme Court held that DPSP prevail over Fundamental Rights.
2. The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951 was enacted partly in response to judicial interpretation of FR vis-à-vis DPSP.
3. The doctrine of harmonious construction governs the present relationship between FR and DPSP.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: In Champakam Dorairajan (1951), the Supreme Court held that Fundamental Rights prevail over DPSP (so Statement 1 is incorrect). The First Amendment introduced Article 15(4) to promote social justice. Currently, courts follow the doctrine of harmonious construction as affirmed in Kesavananda Bharati and Minerva Mills.

Question 26: Which of the following DPSP provisions have corresponding Fundamental Duties under Article 51A?

1. Protection and improvement of environment
2. Promotion of international peace
3. Safeguarding public property
4. Development of scientific temper

Select the correct answer:

a) 1 and 4 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: a)

Explanation: Article 48A (DPSP) relates to environmental protection, while Article 51A(g) imposes it as a Fundamental Duty. Scientific temper (51A(h)) aligns with modern constitutional philosophy. Safeguarding public property and international peace do not have direct DPSP parallels in the manner framed above.

Question 27: The expansion of Article 31C to cover all DPSPs was declared unconstitutional on the ground that it violated:

a) Judicial Review
b) Basic Structure of the Constitution
c) Parliamentary Sovereignty
d) Federalism

Answer: b)

Explanation: In Minerva Mills (1980), the Supreme Court held that giving primacy to all DPSPs over FR would destroy the Basic Structure, particularly the balance between Part III and Part IV.

Question 28: Consider the following statements:

1. The 44th Constitutional Amendment removed the Right to Property from Fundamental Rights.
2. The objective behind this amendment was aligned with Article 39(b) and (c).
3. The Right to Property is now a Directive Principle.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: The 44th Amendment (1978) removed Right to Property from Part III and made it a constitutional/legal right under Article 300A. It is not a DPSP. The move aligned with socialist objectives under Article 39(b) and (c).

Question 29: Which of the following statements correctly explains the relationship between DPSP and Fundamental Duties?

a) Both are enforceable by courts.
b) Both impose positive obligations but are non-justiciable.
c) DPSP are moral duties of citizens, whereas Fundamental Duties bind the State.
d) DPSP can be enforced only through Fundamental Duties.

Answer: b)

Explanation: DPSPs impose positive obligations on the State; Fundamental Duties impose moral obligations on citizens. Neither is directly enforceable by courts unless backed by legislation.

Question 30: The Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommendations had a direct bearing on:

1. Addition of Fundamental Duties
2. Strengthening of Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Giving precedence of DPSP over Fundamental Rights

Select the correct answer:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Question 31: With reference to the evolution of the relationship between Fundamental Rights (FR) and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), consider the following statements:

1. In Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967), the Supreme Court held that Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights.
2. In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court upheld unlimited parliamentary power to amend any part of the Constitution.
3. The doctrine of Basic Structure emerged partly to preserve harmony between FR and DPSP.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: In Golaknath (1967), Parliament was restrained from amending FR. In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), Parliament’s amending power was upheld but subject to the Basic Structure doctrine. Harmony between FR and DPSP forms part of Basic Structure. Statement 2 is incorrect because amendment power is not unlimited.

Question 32: Consider the following statements regarding Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980):

1. It struck down the expansion of Article 31C that gave primacy to all DPSPs over FR.
2. It declared that limited amending power itself is part of the Basic Structure.
3. It upheld the absolute supremacy of Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: Minerva Mills invalidated the 42nd Amendment’s attempt to give primacy to all DPSPs and held that limited amending power is part of Basic Structure. It rejected absolute supremacy of either FR or DPSP.

Question 33: With reference to Article 31C, consider the following statements:

1. After judicial review, Article 31C protects only laws implementing Articles 39(b) and 39(c).
2. Article 31C excludes judicial review completely in matters related to DPSP.
3. The validity of Article 31C was examined in I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: Article 31C now protects only laws implementing Articles 39(b) and (c). Judicial review cannot be excluded entirely as per Basic Structure. In I.R. Coelho (2007), the Court reaffirmed that laws placed under the Ninth Schedule are subject to Basic Structure review.

Question 34: In State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (1951), the Supreme Court held that:

a) Directive Principles override Fundamental Rights.
b) Fundamental Rights prevail over Directive Principles in case of conflict.
c) Both are equally enforceable.
d) Directive Principles are part of Basic Structure.

Answer: b)

Explanation: The Court held that FR prevail over DPSP in case of conflict. This led to the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 inserting Article 15(4).

Question 35: Which of the following constitutional developments reflects the progressive harmonization of DPSP with Fundamental Rights?

1. Expansion of Article 21 through judicial interpretation
2. Introduction of Article 21A by the 86th Amendment
3. Judicial recognition of Right to Clean Environment

Select the correct answer:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 only

Answer: c)

Explanation: The Supreme Court expanded Article 21 using DPSPs (e.g., environmental protection under Article 48A). The 86th Amendment converted education from DPSP (Article 45) to FR (Article 21A). All three show harmonization.

Question 36: Consider the following statements:

1. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment attempted to give precedence to DPSP over FR.
2. The Supreme Court upheld this precedence in totality.
3. The balance between Part III and Part IV is part of the Basic Structure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: The 42nd Amendment expanded Article 31C. However, Minerva Mills struck down this expansion. The balance between FR and DPSP forms part of Basic Structure.

Question 37: With reference to the Ninth Schedule and DPSP, consider the following statements:

1. Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule are immune from judicial review.
2. I.R. Coelho (2007) held that even Ninth Schedule laws are subject to Basic Structure review.
3. The Ninth Schedule was originally introduced to protect land reform laws implementing DPSPs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect after I.R. Coelho. The Ninth Schedule (First Amendment, 1951) was introduced primarily to protect agrarian reforms linked to Article 39(b) and (c).

Question 38: Which of the following best explains the constitutional significance of DPSP in contemporary governance?

a) They are legally enforceable socio-economic rights.
b) They guide legislative and executive policy-making.
c) They restrict the amending power of Parliament directly.
d) They are enforceable only through Article 32.

Answer: b)

Explanation: DPSPs guide State policy. They are non-justiciable but influence judicial interpretation and governance.

Question 39: Consider the following pairs (Case – Principle Established):

1. Golaknath – Parliament cannot amend FR
2. Kesavananda Bharati – Basic Structure doctrine
3. Minerva Mills – Absolute supremacy of DPSP

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: Pair 3 is incorrect because Minerva Mills rejected supremacy of DPSP and emphasized harmony.

Question 40:  Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the present constitutional position regarding FR and DPSP?

a) Fundamental Rights have absolute primacy over DPSP.
b) Directive Principles have primacy over Fundamental Rights.
c) Both are complementary and supplementary to each other.
d) DPSP are enforceable if approved by Parliament by simple majority.

Answer: c)

Explanation: The judiciary has consistently maintained that FR and DPSP are complementary and supplementary. The Constitution aims at achieving socio-economic justice without destroying civil liberties.

Question 41: With reference to Article 38 of the Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. It directs the State to promote welfare of the people by securing a social order informed by justice.
2. It was amended by the 44th Constitutional Amendment to include minimizing inequalities in income.
3. It applies only to economic justice and not to social or political justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: Article 38 promotes a social order informed by justice—social, economic and political. The 44th Amendment did not amend Article 38; the 42nd Amendment added clause (2) regarding minimizing inequalities. Statement 3 is incorrect because it includes all three dimensions of justice.

Question 42: Consider the following statements regarding the 25th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971:

1. It inserted Article 31C into the Constitution.
2. It curtailed the right to property.
3. It gave primacy to all Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: The 25th Amendment inserted Article 31C and curtailed property rights to facilitate implementation of Article 39(b) and (c). It did not give primacy to all DPSPs—this expansion was attempted later by the 42nd Amendment.

Question 43: With reference to the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, consider the following:

1. Addition of the words “Socialist” and “Secular” in the Preamble.
2. Insertion of Fundamental Duties.
3. Expansion of Article 31C to cover all DPSPs.
4. Introduction of judicial review as a constitutional principle.

Select the correct answer:

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: a)

Explanation: The 42nd Amendment added “Socialist” and “Secular,” inserted Part IVA (Fundamental Duties), and expanded Article 31C (later struck down in Minerva Mills). Judicial review was not introduced by this amendment; it existed earlier.

Question 44:  Consider the following statements:

1. Article 39(b) and (c) aim to prevent concentration of wealth and ensure equitable distribution of resources.
2. These provisions reflect the socialist orientation of the Constitution.
3. Laws enacted under Article 39(b) and (c) are immune from judicial review.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: Articles 39(b) and (c) reflect socialist principles. However, no law is completely immune from judicial review after I.R. Coelho (2007); Basic Structure review applies.

Question 45: Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between Fundamental Duties and DPSP after the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002?

a) Education became a DPSP only.
b) Education became a Fundamental Right and a corresponding Fundamental Duty was added.
c) Education ceased to be mentioned in DPSP.
d) Education became enforceable only under Article 51A.

Answer: b)

Explanation: The 86th Amendment inserted Article 21A (Right to Education), modified Article 45 (DPSP), and added Article 51A(k) making it a duty of parents/guardians to provide education.

Question 46: Consider the following statements regarding the enforceability of DPSP:

1. DPSP can be directly enforced by the Supreme Court under Article 32.
2. DPSP may become enforceable if Parliament enacts laws to implement them.
3. Courts may use DPSP to interpret the scope of Fundamental Rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: DPSPs are non-justiciable and cannot be directly enforced. However, when Parliament enacts laws, they become enforceable. Courts often interpret FR expansively using DPSP (e.g., Article 21 jurisprudence).

Question 47: With reference to Article 50 of the Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. It mandates separation of judiciary from executive in public services of the State.
2. It is enforceable through writ jurisdiction.
3. It strengthens the independence of judiciary, a part of Basic Structure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a)

Explanation: Article 50 is a DPSP and hence non-justiciable. It strengthens judicial independence, which is part of Basic Structure.

Question 48: Consider the following pairs (Amendment – Impact on DPSP/FR Relationship):

1. 24th Amendment – Affirmed Parliament’s power to amend FR
2. 42nd Amendment – Expanded scope of Article 31C
3. 44th Amendment – Made Right to Property a legal right

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 only

Answer: c)

Explanation: All three are correctly matched. The 24th restored amending power after Golaknath, the 42nd expanded Article 31C, and the 44th removed Right to Property from Part III.

Question 49:  Which of the following best reflects the constitutional philosophy behind DPSP?

a) They impose negative obligations on the State.
b) They aim at establishing a laissez-faire state.
c) They embody the goals of a welfare state through positive State action.
d) They are enforceable socio-economic rights.

Answer: c)

Explanation: DPSPs require positive State action to establish social and economic democracy, reflecting welfare state philosophy.

Question 50: Which of the following statements most accurately captures the current judicial position regarding Part III and Part IV of the Constitution?

a) Part III is superior and Part IV is subordinate.
b) Part IV is superior and can override Part III.
c) Both Parts together constitute the conscience of the Constitution.
d) Part IV is enforceable only during constitutional emergencies.

Answer: c)

Explanation: The Supreme Court has described Parts III and IV as the “conscience of the Constitution.” They are complementary and must be harmoniously interpreted to achieve constitutional goals.